MCQs of Biology for Medical Entrance Preparation (Part-2)

Here, we present some of the MCQs of biology for students of different medical fields. It may be helpful to those students  who are determined to achieve and fulfill their aim in future.

1. Bulliform cells are present in

• Adaxial side of dorsiventral leaf
• Abaxial side of isobilateral leaf
• Adaxial side of grass leaf
• Abaxial side of monocot leaf

2. Annual rigs can be observed in

• Sap wood
• Heart wood
• Periderm
• Both A and B

3. Which of the following is not a population interaction?

• Parasitism
• Commensalism
• Camouflage
• Mutualism

4. During secondary growth of dicot root, vascular cambium arises from

• Completely from pericycle
• Partially from the tissue below protoxylem and remaining from pericycle
• Tissue located just below phloem, a portion from pericycle above protoxylem
• Partially from pericycle, partially from medullary rays

5. Systematics is the study of

• Their diversities
• Kinds of organisms
• Relationship among them
• All of these

6. Kyoto Protocol is concerned with

• Reducing greenhouse emissions
• Reducing the emission of ozone depleting substances
• Reducing the noise pollution
• Reducing the emissions of photo-oxidants

7. Regarding the thretas of biodiversity, the evil quartet is the sobriquet not applicable for

• Over exploitation
• Alien species invasion
• Co-evolution
• Habitat fragmentation and loss

8. Presence of phloem only toward outer side of xylem is the feature of which type of vascular bundle

• Bicollateral
• Collateral
• Radical
• Conjoint

9. Parietal placentation is present in

• Tomato
• Chinarose
• Argemone
• Dianthus

10. What is the nature of cell wall in Diatoms?

• Cellulosic and silicate
• Glycoproteins and silicate
• Proteinaceous and silicate
• Cellulosic and non-silicate

11. What gases are produced during ‘anaerobic sludge digestion’?

• H₂S and CO₂ but not methane
• Methane, H₂S and O₂
• Methane and CO₂ but not H₂S
• Methane, CO₂ and H₂S

12. Pure line can be obtained by

• Hybridization
• Cross pollination
• Intervarietal hybridization
• Continuous selfing and selection

13. Which of the following is helpful in maintaining pollen banks?

• Pollen kit
• Cryopreservation
• Pectocellulose
• Sporopollenin

14. Mendel conducted hybridization experiment on garden peas for………….years.

• 17
• 24
• 7
• 34

15. Claviceps belongs to class

• Phycomycetes
• Deuteromycetes
• Basisiomycetes
• Ascomycetes

16. Tri-locular ovary occur in all except

• Asparagus
• Colchicum
• Aloe
• Trifolium

17. Protonema is

• Gametophyte in ferns
• Early stage of gametophyte of moss
• Unicellular and haploid
• Filamentous sporophyte in moss

18. Which of the following is likely to have the highest levels of DDT deposition in its body?

• Seagull
• Eel
• Crab
• Phytoplankton

19. Assimilatory power consumed in bundle sheath cells of a C4 plant for the net gain of one hexose

• 12 ATP, 6 NADPH
• 30 ATP,12 NADPH
• 18 ATP, 12 NADPH
• 12 ATP, 12 NADPH

20. Incorrect match of the following

• Endosperm- female gametophyte of in gymnosperms
• Protonema– adult phase of moss plant
• Prothallus- gametophyte of pteridophytes
• Perisperm- persistent nucellus in black pepper

20. Golgi complex participate in

• Respiration in bacteria
• Fatty acid breakdown
• Activation of amino-acids
• Formation of secretory vesicles

22. If 0.6 J of energy in NSP of peacock, the energy found in plant in the form gross primary productivity is? (if rate of respiration in plant is 25% of GPP)

Plant → Mouse → Snake → Peacock

• 600 J
• 800 J
• 60 J
• 200 J

23. Potato spindle tuber disease caused by Viriods.

• Chromosome behavior
• Chromosome structure
• Chromosome number
• All of these

24. How many are associated with pteridophytes?

Tracheophyta

Sporophitic main plant body

Haplontic life cycle

Sessile sex organ

Thallus body

Protonema

Independent sporophyte

Elaters

• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

25. Features like actinomorphic flower, axile placentation and endospermous seeds are common in

• Solanaceae and Liliaceae
• Graminae and Liliaceae
• Liliacaeae and Fabaceae
• Brassicaceae and fabaceae

26. Select the incorrect match

• Flora- information on any one taxon
• Herbarium- quick referral system
• Botanical gardens- live collection of plants
• Manuals- identification of names of species of any area

27. Which of the following tissues is/are obliterated due to the continued formation and accumulation of secondary xylem?

• Primary xylem and pith
• Primary and secondary phloem
• Phellem and phelloderm
• Primary phloem only

28. Secondary constriction differs from primary constriction in being

• Euchromatin
• Attachment site for spindle fibres
• Heterochromatin
• Present in all chromosomes near telomere

29. Maximum cytoplasmic growth and duplication of semi-autonomous organelles occur in

• G1 only
• G1 and G2 respectively
• G2 and M-phase respectively
• G2 only

30. Active transport differs from facilitated transport in

• Highly selective nature
• Showing transport saturates
• Direction of transport
• Requirement of special membrane protein

31. The meristem that occurs in mature regions of roots and shoots of many plants are

• Dedifferentiated tissues
• Re-differentiated tissues
• Protoderm and procambium
• Ground meristems and intercalary meristems

32. Fruit of mango

• Is simple and fleshy developed from inferior ovary
• Is aggregate and fleshy that developed form superior ovary
• Is drupe with outer hard and stony pericarp
• Is simple and fleshy that developed from monocarpellary superior ovary

33. Living flexible or elastic tissue

• Is always present as homogeneous layer below epidermis
• Has thickened cell wall at corner due to deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin
• Provides mechanical support to the fruit walls of nut
• Constitutes hypodermis in dicots and monocots

34. Re-differentiated structure is stelar region with dark brown colour due to deposition  of organic compounds is

• Heartwood
• Sapwood
• Secondary phloem
• Phelloderm

35. Movement of chromosome to spindle equator is preceded by

• Separation of chromatids
• The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope
• Movement of centrioles towards opposite pole
• Clustering of chromosomes at opposite spindle poles

36. The total number of peripheral microtubules bundles in the flagella of Chlamydomonas cell is

• 36
• 40
• 18
• 27

37. In which of the following stage of meiosis, bivalent chromosomes first time clearly appears as tetrads?

• Diplotene
• Leptotene
• Zygotene
• Pachytene

38. Which of the following equation is correct for a turgid cell?

• Ψw = Ψs
• Ψw = Ψs – (-Ψp)
• Ψs = Ψp
• Ψs < Ψw

39. Deficiency symptoms like chlorosis, inhibition of cell division and delayed flowering are commonly caused by

• N, S, Mo
• Mg, Mn, Zn
• Cu, Ca, Mg
• Mo, Mn, Zn

40. Which of the following organs are not analogous organ?

• Wings of insects and wings of Pigeon
• Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
• Sting of honey bee and scorpion
• Fins of Fishes and Flippers of whales

41. Condition which is favorable for dissociation of oxygen from oxy-hemoglobin is:

• Low pCO₂
• High pO₂
• Lower temperature
• High H⁺ concentration

42. Which statement is correct regarding antibody?

• It provides cell mediated immunity
• They are produced by T- lymphocytes
• It is represented by H1L2
• They are useful in the active and passive immunity.

43. Which statements are true about teeth?

a) Last molar appears only once in life

b) Adult human has 6 molars in upper jaw

c) In birds, jaws are modified into horny beak, which is toothless

d) Mammals have the codont and homodont

e) Child do not have premolar

• a, b, c
• b, c, d
• all except b
• all except d

44. Read the following statements carefully and find out the incorrect statements:

• Ciliary body itself continues forward to form a structure called lens
• The aperture surrounded by the iris is called the pupil
• Visual purple protein found in rods
• The inner layer of eye is the retina and it contains three layers of cells

45. Bilateral symmetrical, Triploblastic, segmented and coelomate animal is

• Pila
• Star fish
• Ascaris
• Silkworm

46. Which is correct regarding generation of nerve impulse?

• Neuron membrane is least permeable for K+ ions
• Sodium-potassium pump transport 3K+ outside the axon and 2Na+ inside the axon
• During resting stage only, passive diffusion occurs
• Sodium ions influx is responsible for nerve impulse generation

47. Which technique is suitable for the females who cannot produce the ovum but can provide a suitable environment for fertilization and further development?

• GIFT
• ZIFT
• ICSI
• IUT

48. Read the following statements carefully and choose the option with all the correct ones only:

a) Total thickness of diffusion membrane is much less than a millimeter

b) Solubility of gases does not affect the rate of diffusion

c) Partial pressure of CO₂ in tissues is lower than the oxygenated blood

d) The diffusion membrane is made up of three major layers

• a, b and c
• a and d
• b and c
• b, c and d

49. What would be the number of bivalents (E) in metaphase I, and DNA amount in metaphase II (F) in a dividing cell if microspore has 30 chromosomes with 10picogram DNA?

• E= 30, F= 40pg
• E= 30, F= 20pg
• E= 30, F= 60pg
• E= 60, F= 40pg

50. The technique which is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients

• PCR
• Urine analysis
• Serum analysis
• RNA-DNA hybridization

51. During normal condition, which substance is absent in glomerular filtrate?

• Urea
• Glucose
• Amino acid
• Plasma protein

52. The excess of nutrients which are not used immediately are converted into……. and are stored in….tissue.

• Carbohydrate, matrix
• Fat, adipose tissue
• Fat, White fibrous connective tissue
• Protein, Elastic connective tissue

53. Which one is possible during muscle contraction?

• Contraction in rods
• I-bands sliding
• Fixed H-zone
• A- band contraction

54. Which of the following is incorrect?

• Ovary is a primary sex organ in which ova are produced
• Vas deferens is a secondary sex organ which transports sperm
• Testis is a primary sex organ in which sperms are  produced
• Breast is a secondary sex organ which nourishes the infant

55. How many of these hormones are lipid soluble?

FSH, LH, Oestrogen, Epinephrine, Aldosterone, Progesterone

• Two
• One
• Three
• Four

56. How many of the following statements given are correct below?

a) Squamous epithelium has flattened cells

b) Cilia present on the lining of stomach

c) Epithelium tissue provides covering and lining for some part of body

d) Compound epithelium consists of two or more cell layers

• 3
• 4
• 2
• 1

57. Which of the following relation is true?

• Functional residual capacity = Inspiratory capacity + Residual volume
• Total lung capacity = Functional residual capacity + Inspiratory reserve volume
• Vital capacity = Inspiratory capacity + Expiratory reserve volume
• Inspiratory capacity = Vital capacity – Tidal volume

58. Some statements are given for wings of bat and butterfly:

a) They are anatomically similar.

b) They are homologous structures.

c) They are the result of divergent evolution.

d) They perform different functions.

e) They are example of adaptive convergence.

f) They indicate common ancestry.

• Zero
• One
• Two
• Three

59. Male is impotent and female is normal then which of the following technique can be used?

• Artificial insemination
• ZIFT
• GIFT
• ICSI

60. Which of the following disease is not produced by cigarette smoking?

• Bronchitis
• Cancer of urinary bladder
• Emphysema
• Cirrhosis of liver

61. In multiple ovulation embryo transfer technique, how many eggs are produced as compare to one egg per cycle generally?

• 4 to 5
• 5 to 10
• 6 to 8
• 10 to 20

62. Cyclosporine A is used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant patients, it is produced by

• Yeast- Monascus
• Bacterium-Streptococcus
• Bacterium- Propionibacterium
• Fungus- Trichoderma

63. Which of the following affects Hardy-Weinburg equilibrium?

• Mutation
• Natural selection
• Genetic drift
• All of the above

64. Identify set of enzymes found in pancreatic juice?

• Chymo-trypsinogen, lipase, nuclease
• Trypsinogen, pro-rennin, ptyalin
• Maltase, sucrose, trypsinogen
• Pancreatic amylase, lactase, di-peptidase

65. Examples of passive immunity are

• a) Vaccination
• b) Infections through pathogens
• c) Antibodies against snake venom
• Both a and c

66. Out of ‘a to f’ which factors are favorable for the dissociation of oxy-hemoglobin?

a) High P_O2

b) High Pco₂

c) High temperature

d) High H⁺ concentration

e) Low Pco₂

f) Low pH

• a, b, d, f
• c, d, e, f
• b, d, e
• b, c, d, f

67. At the posterior pole of the eye lateral to the _”a”_ there is a _”b”_ pigmented spot called _”c”_with a central pit called the _”d”_.

• a-Fovea, b- yellowish, c- Macula lutea, d- Blind spot
• a- Blind spot, c- Macula lutea, d- Fovea
• a- Yellowish, c- Macula lutea, d- Blind spot
• a- Blind spot, b- Yellowish, c- Fovea

68. Which of the hormones interact with intracellular receptors?

• Peptide and protein hormones
• Peptides and steroid hormones
• Steroid hormones and iodothyronines
• Peptide hormone and iodothyronines

69. Which of the following is performed by progesterone?

• (a) Milk secretion
• (b)Formation of alveoli in mammary glands
• c) Female sexual behavior
• Both a and b

70. Which antibody exists in pentamer form?

• IgM
• IgA
• IgD
• IgG

71. How many autosomes are present in Turner’s syndrome and Klinifelter’s syndrome?

• 44 and 45
• 44 and 44
• 45 and 47
• 47 and 45

72. Which of the following bacteria have a significant impact on human affairs such as making curd from milk and production of antibiotics?

• Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
• Photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
• Archaebacteria
• Heterotrophic bacteria

73. Largest cartilage found in larynx is

• Thyroid
• Arytenoid
• Santorini
• Cricoid

74. The process in which egg cell of female gametophyte is responsible to form embryo without fertilization is known as

• Parthenocarpy
• Adventive embryony
• Apospory
• Parthenogenesis

75. Perilymph is found in

• Scala media and Scala vestibuli
• Scala media and Scala tympani
• Scala vestibuli and Scala tympani
• All of the above

76. The exaggerated response to the immune system to certain antigen (like pollen grain, dust) present in the environment is called as

• Amnestic response
• Allergy
• Innate immunity
• Cell to cell killing

77. A peptide hormone produced by juxtaglomerular cells of kidney which stimulates RBC production is

• ANF
• Secretin
• Cholecystokinin
• Erythropoietin

78. Which of the following is responsible for cell mediated immunity?

• T-lymphocytes
• Monocytes
• Neutrophils
• B-lymphocytes

79. In columnar epithelium, where is nucleus located at?

• On apex part
• Middle
• At the base
• Peripheral part

80. Identify the correct statements with reference to bony fishes

a) Streamlined body

b) Air bladder and operculum present

c) Mouth mostly terminal

d) External fertilization

e) Body is covered by placoid scales

• a, b, c, d
• b, c, d, e
• a, c, d, e
• a, b, d, e

81. read the following four statements (a-d) with reference to muscle and select an option which includes all the correct ones only

a) Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the store house of calcium.

b) Bundle of muscle fibers is called fascicle.

c) Myofibrils are present in muscle fiber.

d) Based on nature (mode of action), cardiac muscle is voluntary.

• b, c and d
• a, c and d
• a, b and d
• a, b and c

82. Semilunar valves remain closed:

• a) During ventricular systole
• b) During atrial systole
• c) During ventricular diastole
• Both b and c

82. Which one is used for making indigenous medicines and have high nutritive value?

• Wax
• Honey
• Lac
• Silk

84. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which include all correct ones only:

a) Acromegaly is due to hyper-secretion of STH in adult stage.

b) In adulthood, hypothyroidism is very rare.

c) Hyper-secretion of glucocorticoids seen in “Addison’s disease”.

d) At the time physical labour of fasting, taking insulin injection can cause “insulin shock” in diabetic patient.

• b and c
• a and b
• a and c
• a and d

MCQs of Biology for Medical Entrance Preparation (Part-2)