MCQ’s OF MICROBIOLOGY ( GENETICS- PART-1)

Some of the multiple choice questions for preparation of entrance related to microbiology and fields of microbiology (Chapter- Genetics)

1) Full form of RFLP is:

• Restriction fraction length polymorphisms
• Restriction fragment length polymorphisms
• Recombinant fragment length polymorphosis
• Recombinant fragment length polymorphisms

2) RFLP is used to identify:

• Phenylketoneuria
• Sickle cell anemia
• Gilbert’s disease
• Von Gierke’s disease

3) In restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP), DNA separation is done using:

• Gel electrophoresis
• Ultra centrifugation
• lon exchange chromatography
• HPLC

4) Northern blot uses :

• Amplification of mRNA
• Amplification of nucleotides
• Amplification of t-RNA
• DNA

5) Southern Blotting is a technique related to:

• RNA
• DNA
• Carbohydrate
• Protein

6) Western Blotting is technique related to:

• RNA
• Protein
• DNA
• Lipids

7) Viral gene amplification is by:

• Polymerase Chain Reaction
• DNA hybridization
• Ligase chain reaction
• In-situ hybridization

8) Electrophoresis of DNA can be performed by:

• Agarose gel electrophoresis
• Pulsed field gel electrophoresis (PFGE)
• Field inversion gel electrophoresis (FIGE)
• All of above

9) Agar Gel method was first demonstrated by:

• Oudin
• Neufeld
• Jacob
• Border

10) The first hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is:

• Insulin
• Sex-Hormone
• Growth Hormone (GH)
• Thyroid Hormone

11) Among the many products produced by genetically engineered bacteria are:

• Interferon and insulin
• Sodium and chloride ions
• Sucrose and starch
• ATP and ADP molecule

12) Gene cloning into bacteria is useful for obtaining protein products because:

• Bacteria produce more proteins than other organisms
• Microbial fermentation generates proteins
• Recombinant bacteria are cloned to improve fermentation and protein yield
• Recombinant bacteria produce abundant, purifiable gene products on standard culture media

13) Genetically engineered foods include:

• Single-cell protein
• Yogurt, Kefir, buttermilk
• Ripening-delayed tomatoes
• B_t toxin

14) Which of the following was the first bacterium to have complete mapping of chromosomes?

• E. coli
• Vibrio
• Haemophilus influenzae
• Helicobacter pylori

15) Genetically engineered first bacterial strain to receive patenting consisting four hydrocarbons in crude petroleum belongs to the species:

• Escherichia coli
• Bacillus subtilis
• Pseudomonas putida
• Agrobacterium tumefaciens

16) DNA-analysis can be done by using all except:

• Lymphocytes
• Fibroblasts
• Monocytes
• Aminocytes

17) The synthetic nucleoside used in the chemotherapy of cancer is:

• Allopurinol
• Quabain
• Cytarabine
• Azathioprine

18) A radioactively labeled nucleic acid used to identify desired gene sequence is:

• CAAT box
• Okazaki fragments
• TATA boxes
• Probe

19) Form of nucleic acid useful in gene therapy to block translation is:

• cDNA
• Antisense RNA
• tDNA
• Primers

20) Introduction of gene into the cells in gene therapy, is done using:

• Intranuclear injection
• Electroporation
• Peroxisomal liposomes
• All

21) Recombinant DNA molecules is also called:

• Chromosome
• Ribozyme
• Chimera
• Vector

22) Chimeras are DNA molecules that contain:

• Segments of foreign DNA
• Segments of RNA
• Interwoven glucose molecules
• Extra amino acids

23) Foreign DNA is obtained for genetic engineering by:

• Recovery from chromosomal DNA
• Synthesis on a gene machine
• Reverse transcriptase of mRNA
• All of the above

24) cDNA stands for:

• Chromosomal DNA
• Cloned DNA
• Complimentary DNA
• Chimeric DNA

25) cDNA is created by using the enzyme

• DNA polymerase
• Reverse transcriptase
• DNA transferase
• None

26) The template used to make cDNA is:

• DNA
• mRNA
• DNA probe
• Restriction enzyme

27) Useful form of the genetic material for creating a DNA library is:

• cDNA
• tDNA
• Antisense RNA
• None

28) cDNA is preferred to genomic DNA in the study of eukaryotic molecular biology because:

• cDNA have introns
• cDNA does not have introns
• Both a and b
• None

29) Hybridization is useful in identifying recombinant colonies of bacteria because:

• It causes observable point mutations
• It anneals a radioactive-labeled strand of DNA with the microbial DNA
• It results in phenotypically expressed color changes
• It confers antibiotic resistance on recombinant colonies

30) Synthetic generation of DNA on gene machine can be used to explore:

• The effect of point mutation
• Reversion mutations
• Frame shift mutation
• None of the above

31) What is the technique by which DNA can be amplified?

• Southern blot
• PCR
• Hybridization
• Western blot

32) A technique that allows billions of copies of DNA to be synthesized in a test tube from only a few initial copies of DNA is called:

• Western blot
• ELISA
• PCR
• Southern blot

33) In PCR, DNA polymerase is used in:

• DNA replication
• DNA Elongation
• DNA Multiplication
• All

34) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) was discovered by:

• Watson and Crick
• Saiki
• Salk
• Karry Mullis

35) Short segment of DNA used in PCR to anchor and begin polymerization is:

• Probe
• Primer
• tDNA
• cDNA

36)Following are required for the PCR, except:

• RNA polymerase
• DNA template
• Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate
• DNA Polymerase from Thermus aquaticus

37) Automated PCR machines are also known as:

• Thermocyclers
• Thermometer
• Tachometers
• Rotameters

38) Taq-polymerase is an enzyme that is used in:

• DNA replication
• DNA ligation
• RNA polymerization
• DNA to RNA transcription

39) Taq-polymerase is an enzyme that is used in:

• DNA splicing
• DNA ligation
• DNA polymerization
• DNA extraction

40) DNA melting refers to:

• Breaking DNA down to bases
• Splitting of DNA into single strands
• Breaking DNA into fragments
• Fusion of DNA

41) In order to perform a successful genetic engineering experiment, all the following are required except:

• The enzyme DNA ligase
• Molecules of starch and glycogen
• Fresh bacterial cells
• Bacterial plasmids

42) A good host candidate for recombinant DNA technology should:

• Secret the protein product freely into the culture vessel
• Process eukaryotic genes correctly despite simultaneous translation
• Not be a dangerous or potential human pathogen
• All of the above

43) Which of the following are used as vector for gene cloning?

• Cosmids
• Transposons
• Phagemids
• All of these

44) Suitable cloning vector for higher plants includes

• Ti plasmids
• Ri plasmids
• Both a and b
• None

45) Nucleic acid inserted into the genome of a plant by a Ti plasmid is:

• cDNA
• tDNA
• Antisense RNA
• mRNA

46) pBR322 Plasmids used as cloning vectors has genes for resistance against which of the following antibiotic?:

• Ampicillin only
• Tetracycline only
• Both a and b
• None

47) Who prepared the pBR322 vector in first?

• Rodriguez
• Bolivar
• Both a and b
• None

48) The vector pBR327 was derived from pBR322 by deletion of nucleotide

• 427 to 2,516
• 1,327 to 2,516
• 11,527 to 2.516
• 2,427 to 2,516

 

49) 2,700 bp long pUC plasmids posses all of following EXCEPT

• The origin of replication derived from pBR322
• Ampicillin resistance gene
• Tetracycline resistance gene
• The lac Z gene derived from E. coli

50) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

• In plasmids, DNA sequences upto 10-15 kbp can be cloned
• In lambda phage, DNA sequences upto 22kbp can be cloned
• In cosmids. DNA sequences upto 40 kbp can be cloned
• In YAC vectors, DNA sequences upto 30 kbp can be cloned

51) The process of inserting genetic material into a cloning vector usually involves:

• Cutting with restriction endonucleases and sealing with ligase
• Cutting with ligase and insertion by transfection
• Synthesis of vector on a gene machine
• Conjugation between a plasmid with the material and one without it

52) The restriction enzymes used in biotechnology function by:

• Binding nucleotide molecules together
• Cleaving the DNA molecules at certain points
• Binding amino acids together to form protein
• Restricting the entry of plasmids into cells

53) Restriction endonucleases cleaves

• ds DNA
• ss DNA
• Polypeptide
• ss RNA

54) Restriction endonuclease are derived from:

• Plants
• Human
• Bacteria
• Virus

55) Which of the following restriction endonuclease is the blunt end (flush end) cutter?

• HaeIII
• PvuII
• AluI
• All of the above

56) PvuI restriction endonuclease cuts DNA only at the:

• Hexanucleotide CGATCG
• Hexanucleotide CAGCTG
• Both a and b
• None

57) All the following restriction endonucleases are sticky end cutters except:

• PvuII
• EcoRI
• BamHI
• PvuI

58) Who won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1978 for the studies on restriction enzymes and their use in genetic engineering?

• Nathans
• Smith
• Arber
• All of above

59) Uric acid is formed from xanthine by the action of:

• Xanthine oxidase
• Urease
• Uricase
• Xanthine reductase

60) Sodium urate crystals are deposited in soft tissues in gout and these urate deposites are referred to as: a.

• Calculi
• Granules
• Tummor
• Tophi

61) A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is:

• Digitonin
• Rifampicin
• Aspirin
• Allopurinol

62) Which enzyme deficiency leads to hypouricemia?

• Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II
• Glutamate dehydrogenase
• Xanthine oxidase
• Orotidylic acid decarboxylase

63) Hyperuricemia occurs in all the following disorders except:

• Von Gierke’s disease
• Gout
• Orotic aciduria
• LescNyhan syndrome

64) Normal level of serum uric acid in men is:

• 3-7mg/100ml
• 70-110mg/100ml
• 15-45mg/100ml
• 6-8g/100ml

65) Uric acid pool in human body is about:

• 700mg
• 7mg
• 1200mg
• 2g

66) During denovo purine biosynthesis the first purine nucleotide formed is:

• Xanthylic acid
• Inosinic acid
• Guanylic acid
• Adenylic acid

67) What are the atoms of purine that are derived from glycine?

• C4, C5 and N7
• C4, C6 and N7
• C4, C5 and N9
• C3 and C9

68) Purine biosynthesis is regulated by:

• Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP)
• Phosphoribosylamine
• Inosine monophosphate
• Ribose phosphate

69) Purine biosynthesis is inhibited by:

• Methotrexate
• Azaserine
• Aminopterin
• All of the above

70) In salvage pathway, purine nucleotides are formed form:

• Purines and ribose-1-phosphate
• Purines and phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
• Purines and ribose 5-phosphate
• Purines and ribose

71) The first step in pyrimidine biosynthesis is catalysed by: a.

• Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I
• Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II
• Orotidylic acid decarboxylase
• Adenosine deaminase

72) In man the chief end products of pyrimidine catabolism are:

• Carbon dioxide
• B-aminoisobutyrate
• Ammonia
• All of the above

73) Which one of the following is an inborn error of pyrimidine metabolism?

• Orotic aciduria
• Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
• Methylmalonic aciduria
• Gout

74) One of the remarkable observations in genetic engineering is that:

• Viruses can be made to replicate within bacteria
• Bacteria can take up segments of DNA from the environment
• Bacteria can conjugate with one another
• Foreign gene can be placed in bacteria and can be expressed

75) Recombinant DNA technology was first developed by:

• Herbert Boyer
• Stanley Cohey
• Paul Berg
• All of them

76) Which of the following is essential for genetic engineering?

• Plasmid vector
• DNA ligase
• Restriction endonucleases
• All of the above

77) All of the following are required for binding of aminoacyl tRNA to the A-site on 50S subunit of ribosome in prokaryote, except:

• EF- Ts
• EF-Tu
• EF-G
• GTP

78) Elongation factor g (EF-G) is involved in:

• Binding of aminoacyl tRNA to the A-site
• Peptide bond formation
• Translocation
• Release of polypeptide chains

79) During translocation the ribosome moves along mRNA from 5′ to 3′ end, by:

• One codon at a time
• Two codon at a time
• Three codon at a time
• Four codon at a time

80) In prokaryotes, the termination of polypeptide chain is carried out by:

• Release factor (RF)-1
• RF-2
• RF-3
• All

81) RF-1 recognizes the termination codons:

• UAA (Ochre) & UGA (Umber)
• UAA (Ochre) & UAG (Amber)
• Both a and b
• None of above

82) Major component of DNA is:

• Inducer
• Histone
• Repressor
• Operon

83) Operon model of gene regulation is proposed by:

• Jacob and Monod
• Beatle and Tatum
• Bordet and Gongou
• Ogston and Klebs

84) The operon that encodes an enzyme in E. coli is an example of:

• How enzymes work in the cell
• How gene control exists in the cell
• How proteins are converted to energy compounds in the cell
• How eukaryotic organisms have evolved from prokaryotic organisms

85) The RNA polymerase initiates transcription by binding to the DNA at the:

• Start codon
• Operator
• Promoter
• Leader

86) A repressor protein inhibits transcription by binding to the DNA at the:

• Operator
• Start codon
• Both of the above
• None of the above

87) Which of the following is true inducer of lac operon?

• Allolactose
• Isopropylthiogalactoside
• Both
• None

88) Which of the following structural gene codes for beta-galactosidase in lac operon?

• lac A
• lac Y
• lac Z
• All

89) Inducible operons are:

• Activated by the availability of a substrate of catabolic pathway
• Controlled by the presence or absence of pathway end product
• Both of these
• None of these

90) Repressible operons:

• Encode & regulate the genes of anabolic pathways
• Are controlled by the presence or absence of pathway end product
• Both of these
• None of these

91) All the following enzymes are involved in digestion of dietary nucleic acids except:

• Restriction endonucleases
• Nucleosidases
• Deoxyribonucleases
• Ribonucleases

92) Which one is a purine nucleotide?

• Uridylate
• Cytidylate product
• Adenylate
• Thymidylate

93) The chief end product of purine catabolism in human is:

• Allantoin
• Xanthine
• Uric acid
• Urea

94) Which is the end product of purine catabolism in mammals other than higher primates?

• Ammonia
• Allantion
• Urea
• Uric acid

95) Uric acid synthesis mainly takes place in:

• Muscle
• Kidneys
• Bone marrow
• Liver

96) Shine- Dalgarno sequence is found in :

• Prokaryotic mRNA
• Eukaryotic mRNA
• 16 S rRNA
• 50 S subunit of ribosome

97) Shine- Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:

• AUG-codon
• UAG-codon
• UGA-codon
• UAA-codon

98) Rho factor is involved at which step of transcription in prokaryotes?

• Initiation
• Termination
• Elongation
• None

99) The gene sequence CGGACT would be transcribed as

• GCCTGA
• GCCUGA
• GUUTGA
• Arginine, stop

100) Which one is not true for eukaryotic mRNA?

• They are polycistronic
• They are monocistronic
• Contains polyA sequence at 3’ end
• Contains ‘Cap’ region at 5’ end

REFERENCES:

i) https://openstax.org/books/microbiology/pages/1-multiple-choice

ii) https://byjus.com/biology/microbiology-mcqs/

iii) https://www.easybiologyclass.com/mcq-on-history-of-microbiology-mcq-05-with-answer-key-2/

MCQ’s OF MICROBIOLOGY ( GENETICS- PART-1)